Frontier Oral Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Which MDA must be used during a circle-to-land maneuver?
• If RVR is reported as 5/INOP/5, can we depart?
• Why is A/THR disconnected initially?
• Is F9 authorized to conduct Special Authorizations (SA) CAT I approaches?
• If PQNH is 30.00, Actual QNH 29.90, is the TLR valid?
• How many Primary Flight Displays are required for RVSM?
• What is the lowest authorized weather minimum that allows F9 to depart a runway?
• For CAT IIIA operations, what is the DH/AH specified for CAT 3 DUAL (Fail Operative)?
• When do you call 'continuing' on a CAT I approach?
• By how much can Actual QNH be below PQNH before the TLR is considered invalid?
• Which statement best describes Class I navigation?
• During takeoff, when are PREDICTIVE windshear alerts inhibited?
• Can an exterior inspection be performed by a mechanic or 'stand in' pilot?
• Is the pilot permitted to reset a tripped C/B on the ground?
• Where do you find COMPLEX engine failure takeoff procedures?
• What are the weather minimums required to perform a circle-to-land maneuver?
• Which documents must be onboard before block out? (Select the complete required set)
• Is Exemption 20295 restricted to domestic flights?
• How much fuel is required prior to departure?
• Can you leave the cockpit if the parking brake is off?
• When turning BAT 1(2) off then on (initiates the charging cycle), what do you look for?
• What is Class II navigation?
• Under what condition may you begin preliminary cockpit preparation despite a red OOS placard?
• Which of the following is a time when the CRC cannot be cancelled (GOS)?
• When reviewing the flight logbook, what is the pilot responsible for?
• Is F9 authorized to perform circle-to-land approaches?
• Why must the engines be running and stabilized no less than 3 minutes before takeoff?
• How much flight time does RESERVE fuel allow for?
• LAHSO stands for what type of operation?
• How many brake applications are available with accumulator pressure?
• When do you select flaps full on a single-engine approach?
• Can you depart VFR and then pick up an IFR clearance?
• When V/S becomes <500 FPM, what do you do?
• Which option lists all items that are unpressurized areas?
• If an engine fails at cruise, when does METHOD 2 assume the pilot will turn to the DDA if the DDA is ahead?
• Which option lists both CAT II minimums as 1000 RVR and 100' DH?
• What do the values 500/500/500 refer to in takeoff minimums?
• The EO REC MAX Cruise altitude equals the maximum flight level for which condition?
• Which units are used to express the fuel reliability check limits?
• In ATC breakout procedures for PRM approaches, what is the most important element?
• If thunderstorms are forecast within +/- 1 hour of ETA, can Exemption 20295 be used?
• When RVR is less than 1600, how many operative RVR readings are required for takeoff?
• When is Alternate Braking with Anti-Skid automatically activated?
• Which statement describes the Fixed Speed Strategy for Oceanic crossings?
• Which braking action is listed as a factor in TO/LND planning?
• In CLIMB, the ADVISORY range corresponds to which altitude band?
• Is it permissible to add bags to cargo compartments after blockout if engines are running?
• When is A/P required to be on when flying an approach?
• When ready to descend, which ALT action is used for OPEN DES?
• The FPA (bird) is used for which category of approaches?
• What is true about F9 authorization regarding circle-to-land procedures?
• During APPROACH, when are PREDICTIVE windshear alerts inhibited?
• In RVSM altitude tolerance checks, which device is used for comparison with ADR1/2/3 to determine the 100-foot tolerance?
• What does a GREEN C/B indicate?
• What is the minimum fuel required at T/O?
• Based on FICON NOTAM, how do we determine the impact on landing performance?
• If altitude deviates by 300 feet or more in RVSM, must ATC be notified?
• Are there any exceptions to the ground C/B reset policy?
• DDA, in flight planning, stands for what?
• Where else can you find this altitude if you have a dual FM failure?
• Under Exemption 20295, when should you re-evaluate?
• For Fixed Speed Strategy, what is the Non-ETOP requirement?
• What are the conditions that activate wingtip brakes (ROAM)?
• Which term describes a scenario included in planning as a Special Airport consideration?
• How is conflicting RVR data prioritized for departure decisions?
• What does it mean when you see the magenta target airspeed triangle above VAPP on approach?
• If WX goes below approach mins after FAF, may you continue? (restate)
• What do you do if the approach is not stabilized?
• How is marginal weather defined?
• Which value is listed as the CAT IIIB minimum?
• How do you recharge the brake accumulator if the pressure is out of the green band?
• Which RNP accuracy is required to accept an RNAV departure?
• Can we conduct CAT II/III operations outside of the United States?
• LAHSO stands for which of the following?
• In the context of fuel, FOB stands for what?
• Releasing the parking brake restores hydraulic pressure to which system?
• What color is the NW STRG DISC when one engine is running (towing pin in place and NWS is disconnected for towing)?
• Is a logbook entry required for a Computer Reset (CR)?
• For CAT IIIB minimums, which value is listed?
• Under Exemption 20295, what is the ILS capability requirement for aircraft and airport?
• Which altitude is associated with initiating a VMC turn in IMC when in HDG mode?
• Under the Obstacle Strategy, what should be set to reduce rate of descent and maintain altitude?
• What other time might a Takeoff Alternate be listed on the release?
• Can we add bags to the cargo compartments after block out?
• What is the STND (Restart) speed during descent?
• How does a Simple-Special Engine Failure procedure differ from a Standard Procedure?
• Which of the following describes a Green Dot speed?
• During engine failure, what is the correct A/THR setting?
• Is landing at night without runway lights permitted?
• Where do we find SIMPLE or SIMPLE SPECIAL engine failure takeoff procedures?
• What does Green Dot represent?
• What is the purpose of the Ground Speed Mini function of A/THR?
• How many ADRs are required for RVSM?
• The seat belt sign is required to be turned/left on when?
• Who may authorize a reset of a tripped circuit breaker on the ground?
• Is F9 authorized to conduct Special Authorizations (SA) CAT II approaches?
• The fuel reliability check must be within which limits?
• What frequency should the #2 radio monitor enroute if ACARS is MEL'd?
• What is the maximum total system error allowed for RNAV1 SID/STAR?
• What switches must be confirmed on the ground?
• Which conditions are required to use Exemption 20295?
• Who has the authority to cancel a flight?
• Which color indicates the MEL placard that does not require follow-up actions?
• Which color corresponds to NEF items on the MEL placards?
• What is the purpose of matching ATC transponders with AP1(2)?
• During takeoff, when is Reactive windshear available?
• In OEI procedures, which item is required to be confirmed in flight as part of engine management checks?
• What is the recommended action if weather fails to meet circle-to-land minimums?
• What warning is associated with turning on the Yellow Electric Hydraulic pump on the ground?
• When thunderstorm tops are above FL250, what action is required?
• How far below DA may you descend if only the approach lights are visible?
• What are the runway requirements when departing at RVR 5/5/5?
• If you see an amber indication on Slats or Flaps in flight, what should you do?
• When are flaps 3 commonly used during landing?
• At what cabin pressure altitude must pilots don and use O2 masks?
• After engine start, ground crew reports a fuel leak from the engine drain mast. What is the action?
• In the OEI context, what does OBS stand for?
• What is Class I navigation?
• When must the CPT perform a crew briefing with the flight attendants?
• Which color indicates the MEL placard that does require follow-up actions?
• For CAT IIIA approaches, which minimum value is specified in the procedure?
• In APPROACH, what is the PREDICTIVE windshear active range?
• Anti-Skid is not available with Alternate Braking unless which of the following failures occurs?
• Must the autopilot be engaged in RVSM operations?
• Are intoxicated persons allowed to board?
• What does EO REC MAX Cruise altitude represent in engine-out operations?
• Is Visibility or RVR controlling when taking off?
• In HDG mode, when may you commence a turn in VMC if you are in IMC, in terms of altitude AFE?
• When the RVR falls below a threshold, the Surface Movement Guidance and Control System (SMGCS) is activated. At what RVR value does SMGCS become active?
• When only approach lights are visible, what is the minimum altitude to descend below DA?
• Which of the following lists the full RVSM equipment requirements?
• How many Display Management Computers are required for RVSM?
• If a FLEX Temp was not entered in the MCDU and the thrust levers are positioned in the FLEX detent, what will occur?
• On an NPA, when will the A/P automatically disengage if the DDA/DA was NOT entered on the MCDU?
• Under Exemption 20295, what are the minima for CAT II/III at the destination?
• If a GREEN C/B is popped for more than one minute, what is produced?
• During takeoff, predictive windshear alerts are inhibited up to what altitude?
• Which statement about Runway Condition Assessment Matrix (RCAM) is true?
• How does the Ground Speed Mini provide WINDSHEAR protection?
• What does METHOD 2 provide?
• Ground Speed Mini provides windshear protection by what mechanism?
• During an engine start, if electrical power supply is interrupted, which procedure should be followed?
• Which item is NOT listed as part of the RVSM equipment requirements?
• Which conditions require a Dest Alternate (SOS IR)?
• Is a battery voltage system check required if the electrical system is supplied with AC electrical power?
• After the initial altimeter crosscheck, how often should the crosscheck be performed in RVSM airspace?
• Which statement best describes the primary function of Ground Speed Mini?
• Marginal WX is defined as which of the following?
• Which of the following is a PF ECAM callout?
• What does Exemption 20295 allow regarding weather minimums for ILS approaches on domestic flights?
• Which crosswind threshold is a trigger for CPT to assume TO/LND duties?
• What is the maximum altitude difference allowed between ISIS and ADR1/2/3?
• In case of an undetected Dual Engine Failure, which action should be applied first: ECAM or QRH?
• Under the Standard Strategy, when attempting a restart, what speed should be set?
• How early may the flight crew blockout (1.20.32)?
• During a CAT II/III approach, what action is required when an AUTOLAND warning light illuminates?
• What is the maximum N1 to get the aircraft to move on the ramp? Why?
• Which measurement is used for decision-making on takeoff: RVR or visibility?
• Where do you find the altitude to set in the FCU?
• In the scenario of 5/4/5, what controls the decision to depart?
• Which speed is held by FMGS Eng Out mode during engine-out operation?
• What are the initial actions if an engine fails enroute?
• When is a Complex-Special Procedure issued?
• Is Frontier authorized to conduct Extended Range Operations (ETOPS)?
• How are DEST and ALT APPR mins determined when applying marginal weather?
• Which element is included in Captain/Dispatcher preflight planning responsibilities?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the three methods to check Landing Dist Reqd (ATQ)?
• If WX goes below approach mins after the FAF, may you continue?
• What is the maximum altitude difference allowed between STBY ALTI and ADR1/2/3?
• Ramp Fuel refers to which of the following?
• Which of the following is a wingtip brake ROAM trigger?
• Under METHOD 2, how many engines are assumed until reaching cruise flight level?
• What is the recommended practice regarding flying to a published MDA?
• Which phase is exempt from sterile cockpit requirements?
• On the ground, who is always considered the PF for ECAM actions?
• Is F9 authorized to conduct Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO)?
• What does the phrase total system error criterion specify for RNAV1 SID/STAR?
• What minimum takeoff visibility should CPT use?
• Can we taxi if braking action is NIL (1.10.30)?
• When is a Drift-Down Alternate (DDA) required to appear on the Release?
• What do you do if the aircraft starts to move with the parking brake on? Why?
• When should the initial altimeter crosscheck be performed in RVSM airspace?
• Is the pilot permitted to reset a tripped circuit breaker in flight?
• Which value is listed as a CAT II approach minimum?
• If the drain mast leak persists after idle run, what is the required action?
• Which statement about Autoland usage for CAT II/III is correct?
• Which ALT action is described as SET/PULL (OPEN DES) during descent?
• If RVR is 5/4/5, are we allowed to takeoff?
• If the parking brake is off, approval to leave the cockpit must come from whom?
• If a GREEN C/B is popped, what occurs when the duration exceeds one minute?
• If no fuel slip is provided or the fuel reliability check is not accurate, can we still depart (1.20.38)?
• What switches must be confirmed in flight?
• RNAV departure requires engagement of RNAV no later than which altitude AFE?
• If braking action NIL and taxi is not allowed, what is the recommended action?
• Which speed is held by FMGS Eng Out mode during engine-out operation?
• What is the full form of RCAM?
• Under Exemption 20144, which statement best describes the required worst-case WX for DEST and Alternates?
• Why should the CPT wait to call for the After Start CL until visually confirming that the tow bar has been disconnected?
• What does METHOD 1 dispatch performance provide?
• When is an exterior inspection required?
• If Normal Braking is lost but the BSCU is functioning, which color indicates the system taking over?
• How do you verify that the EPE does not exceed RNP 1.0?
• Which statement about magenta triangle indicators is true?
• Which FMGS mode holds the Long-Range Cruise speed during engine-out operation?
• What are your actions if you get the FLEX Temp warning?
• Which runway surface condition is listed as a factor affecting takeoff and landing decisions?
• If a circling minimum is published for an approach, must you use that circling minimum for a circle-to-land maneuver?
• Which item is included in CPT discretion in TO/LND planning?
• On an NPA, when will the A/P automatically disengage if the DDA/DA was entered on the MCDU?
• In CAT IIIA operations, what is the minimum for CAT 3 SINGLE (Fail Passive)?
• Which of the following is a time when the CRC cannot be cancelled (GOS)?
• To perform a circle-to-land maneuver, weather must meet either 1,000 ft ceiling and 3 SM visibility or the published circling minimums. Which statement reflects this requirement?
• When is "Sterile Cockpit" required?
• During takeoff, when is Predictive windshear active?
• At 100' TDZE, what must be distinctly visible in order land?
• Can you begin preliminary cockpit preparation and power up the aircraft if there is a red OOS placard?
• With A/THR off, how is target speed maintained in the descent?
• On an ILS approach with 1800 RVR and inoperative TDZ or RCL lights (C052), what is required?
• Which of the following is a time when the CRC cannot be cancelled (GOS)?
• Exemption 20144 is used to dispatch aircraft under what condition?
• If no alternate takeoff weather minima are published, which standard takeoff minimums can be used?
• What do the three colors of the MEL placards mean?
• If one RVR sensor is INOP and the other two read 5 and 5, can takeoff be allowed?
• How many wing walkers are required to park at the gate?
• In the ARTR mnemonic SHAFT MR, which item corresponds to the letter H?
• Which wind-related condition is listed as a factor for takeoffs and landings?
• What does centering the beta target with the rudder accomplish?
• What color is the electric hydraulic pump used to recharge the brake accumulator?
• Given ILS mins of ½ SM or 1800 RVR, actual Vis ¾ SM, but TDZ RVR 1600 RVR. Can you start the final approach segment?
• Centering the beta target with the rudder is intended to optimize what?
• Which performance criteria are used to determine a Take-Off Alternate?
• What is the minimum fuel required at pushback?
• Which communication capability must be operative for Exemption 20295?
• What are the three Enroute Engine Failure Strategies?
• What do you do once established at level off altitude?
• During APPROACH, when is PREDICTIVE windshear active?
• What color is the NW STRG DISC when no engines are running (in towing position)?
• Why must engines be running and stabilized no less than 3 minutes before takeoff?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the PF ECAM callouts?
• During CLIMB, which range corresponds to the CAUTION/WARNING level?
• When deciding to start the final approach for an ILS, which RVR value is controlling in the presence of conflicting visibility measurements?
• Reactive windshear during landing requires at least which configuration?
• During landing, when is Reactive windshear available?
• Are LPV minimums allowed for RNAV (GPS) approaches?
• What is the required navigation performance (RNP) for an RNAV1 SID or STAR?
• Do you have Anti-Skid if you lose Normal Braking?
• Must Autoland be used for all CAT II/III approaches?
• What is RNP 10 (1.25.50) used for?
• Under FEEM, forecast WX at +/- 1 hour of arrival being below minimums triggers a Dest Alternate. Which statement describes a component of the DOM 1/2/3 rule for minima?
• Which items are unpressurized areas (RAT GEAR)?
• During CLIMB, when is PREDICTIVE windshear active?
• Will the APU start if BAT 1 and BAT 2 are selected off?
• Under what conditions may a single-engine Autoland be performed?
• Centering rudder trim on the ground can cause NWS engagement. Which condition increases the risk?
• Take-off Alternate is required if weather at takeoff is below CAT I minimums. CAT I minimums are defined as: